https://x.com/colbybadhwar/status/1799139146373779533
At least ~100 M113s are in this package. https://t.co/WAeQzHiTLc pic.twitter.com/p4gchEM2lD
— Colby Badhwar 🇨🇦🇬🇧 (@ColbyBadhwar) June 7, 2024
@pizzashill any idea how many m777 were already send to Ukraine ? Wikipedia only gives 198 systems and those numbers are from 2022 so it would be cool to know how much Ukraine got of those ancient m777a2 from 2012 and m777ER from 2016. There are around 210 videos of m777 hit by drones and 170 with ending with big explosion (100% destroyed) and despite it all it's still the most common used artillery system in Ukraine.
Also for pizzashill:
The US fields a "pure fleet" of M777A2 variants.
So Ukraine didn't received any og “old” m777.
Kid still fetishising that Ukraine is receiving old stuff 
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Another resounding kill rate exceeding the total number of 777s provided. Masterful work, team Zigger.
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US writes since 2023 that it gives Ukraine 155mm gun but doesn't mention the type so it can be m777 or m109 so don't get me wrong you are low IQ if you believe Ukraine only got 198 m777.
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M109s are not towed artillery. There would be no mistaking them for 777s. But that is beside the point. There is no reason to invent additional arms transfers when the US has been criminally transparent about what we've sent.
Beyond that, the primary issue facing Ukraine has not been a lack of systems but a lack of munitions. What good would more 777s do if they can't even fire them?
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https://www.ft.com/content/60dddcf2-8f0f-43c7-abe5-02f4223505fa
US literally restarted production of m777 and in 2023 national interest wrote that US alone gave Ukraine almost 200 m777. So total amount what Wikipedia says is already wrong since they give 2022 number of 108 m777 from us and 90 from other
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First time I remember this happen was in 2022 when khohols started using anti radar missiles months before it was officially approved
So there no transparency my linked post directly says Ukraine will receive new 155mm gun and no mention of quantity or type
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The argument is that while it's possible to argue for some entity in Tolkien's cosmos to be known to be "transgender" due to a corruption of their nature, whether or not their "transgenderness" is inherently a quality of their nature or a corruption of their nature is inscrutable to all but the entity themselves and possibly Ilúvatar, but that even if some other entity perceives it to be due to corruption, that per Ilúvatar (or this narrator's representations of the words of Ilúvatar, being the narration given by Pengolodh), that such is mere perception, and that ultimately all that which Men do translates to the completion and perfection of the work.
That Men (those of the race of Men) have a necessary inherent quality which redeems them and their actions, a part of their nature which they express (and which, in our parlance, no one can judge). Even the Creator refuses to condemn it - only celebrates it.
And IMNSHO Pengolodh (the narrator) is Tolkien's self-insert for the purpose of narration.
So "trans people don't exist / aren't valid" isn't an argument from axioms in the universe of Middle Earth. That's related to, but separate from, "here's a trans person in Middle Earth", which to my knowledge isn't in evidence. I want to be argued away from that / be proven wrong.
I wrote the analysis because using Tolkien's Middle Earth to say "Tolkien says trans rights" is using his cosmos as an allegory, which he alternately declaims and claims (the "it's not an allegory to WWII" claim and the "It's the story of Christianity in an alternate universe" claim - both detailed elsewhere). So it's a viable avenue of argumentation - if he's going to deconstruct and then orthogonalise the precepts of Christianity into an alternate history, then we can deconstruct and orthogonalise the precepts of that cosmogony back to ours.
Snapshots:
https://x.com/colbybadhwar/status/1799139146373779533:
ghostarchive.org
archive.org
archive.ph (click to archive)
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