Reported by:
  • grizzly : antisemitism
  • gir30 : Map a little bit inaccurate, but here's a dramacoin for you anyways.
  • 1 : Targeted harassment. You're using 'whites' as a dogwhistle to indicate SuperStraights
  • Ruq : REEEEEEEEEEEEE
  • jinxbomb-4027 : Fake news: Argentina isn't Wh*te

IMPORTANT: If your country is blue (high % of wh*te "people") please leave rdrama.net, you are not welcome here. Thank you.

white devils OUT OUT OUT

102
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It's more like a caucasian map rather than a white white map.

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What?

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People who know politics/geography and also racists know there's essentially levels of white. There's Aryan which is a big part of northern europe, european which includes non-aryans but not all caucasians like middle east. Then there's caucasian which is basically everyone europe/middle east in origin since europe has a common ancestor in the middle east the origin of civilization. Then if you want you can include mutts as well. White has no definition but if you ask around they'll say something similar to all this. When I say white white I mean european.

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Aryan was an endonym of Indo-Iranians (who are, hilariously, not white according to the map), as we can see in the Vedas and Avesta. Nobody else called themselves "Aryan", not even Hittites who came before them, nor any other Indo-European group that followed. Just because some r-slurs in the late 19th century soyed out over Rigveda and decided that Aryan was the name all PIE used doesn't make it so. Caucasian, on the other hand, is an r-slured Anglo invention based on (proven wrong many decades ago) idea that mayos came from the Caucasus.

This map is showing neither, btw. I don't know what they're using for their "white" definition. It's probably some r-slur's OC.

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I think a yank rather be called Caucasian than a “Euro”.

Nobody else called themselves "Aryan", not even Hittites who came before them

Tbh, how certain do we know that? We know that Indic and Iranian groups referred to themselves as Aryan early on in written text but not all did and all written texts date several millennia after the Indo-Iranians split into two different groups.

Also, a lot of people who thought Aryans were not just Indo-Iranian usually did not include all other Indo-Europeans, where instead they thought Aryan IE’s and non-Aryan IE’s splintered off earlier, usually basing it off that non Indo-Iranian language families are as closely related to Indo-Iranian languages as to each other from a linguistic classification standpoint. Basically meaning they thought some languages, and thus peoples, like Germanics were more closely related to Indo-Iranians than to Slavs.

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Tbh, how certain do we know that? We know that Indic and Iranian groups referred to themselves as Aryan early on in written text but not all did and all written texts date several millennia after the Indo-Iranians split into two different groups.

You can't really know any of this for certain since we don't know what most people called themselves in the Bronze Age, but considering that the word doesn't (and didn't) exist in any non Indo-Iranian language, it's a pretty safe assumption. Neither Rigveda nor Avesta were actually written down until far later, but their composition was rather early. In fact Sanskrit and Avestan languages are close enough that Avesta was "decoded" using Sanskrit, with other written Iranian languages being so different that they were basically useless for that purpose.

Basically meaning they thought some languages, and thus peoples, like Germanics were more closely related to Indo-Iranians than to Slavs.

Which is fundamentally nonsensical, since Slavic languages (being Satem, just like Indo-Iranian ones) are far closer to "Aryan" than Germanic are. There is a number of competing classification systems for when each group broke off from each other, but I can't think of a single one of them that would put Germanics "closer" to Indo-Aryans than to Slavs.

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ok nerd

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How was Avesta decoded if it remained the religious texts for Zoroastrians since the religion’s founding? Also, from what I’ve seen, the Indo-Iranian split is not too determinable. I’ve seen estimates put between 2000 to 4000/5000 BC.

Couldn’t Slavic languages undergone satemization instead having it through descent? And this map confuses me since it has a non-IE and/or non-highlighter area between Slavs and Germanics.

I could of sworn I saw a couple that put Germanic, along with some others (eg Armenian, Hellenic, Tocharian, Albanian and/or Celto-Italic, etc.) before Slavic.

Either way, Aryanism is dumb and overrated. Super-Nostraticism is where it’s at. :marseycool:

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Caucasian, on the other hand, is a r-slured Anglo invention based on (proven wrong many decades ago) idea that mayos came from the Caucasus.

Th yomama or whatever it's spelled like culture came from caucasus tho

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Yamnaya. And no, it came from Pontic-Caspian steppe, quite a bit north of the Caucasus. Caucasus had their own, indigenous cultures that had some IE influences, but weren't related.

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They are like 50 km away, come on.

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More than that (and far more for vast majority of them), but crucially - it's the distinction of biome. Yamnaya steppechads got themselves a horse and a wagon, being the first to do so in history - precisely because they were living on grassy flatlands where wild horses were plentiful. Caucasus is a huge mountain range, taller than the Alps, and had no horses whatsoever.

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Los malvinas sont argentinos

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Meds aren't white then if Argentina isn't.

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