https://old.reddit.com/r/neoliberal/comments/1ebm22t/no_physical_commitment_to_the_future_of_this/
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Isn't the whole basis of communism literally the seizure of assets
!anticommunists
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No, commies were big onto Autarky (self dependency) instead. Even when Stalin conquered a bunch of countries after ww2 he made them follow the same rules his country did rather than join the economies of the two together.
That's why there wasn't really an EU (or ECSC back then) equivalent back then. Why commies made same attempts to integrate their economics in later years it didn't achieve a lot
!historychads and !eurochads I guess
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Kinds of by necessity as the awaited collapse of late stage capitalism didn't come.
The soviet ruble was not able to be exchanged so the import capacities of the soviet union was limited. Plus, if you piss off the united states, your trade options are also limited, same reason Franco practised autarky until Spain entrance into NATO.
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They still bought a lot from US, technology under Stalin and then basics like Grain under Brezhnev. To import they always needed to export equal amount, but nobody wanted their industrial trash. So Stalin starved half the country to achieve needed exports, while late Soviet union became increasingly dependent on oil exports.
One of the funny consequences of that is when the arab Crysis drove up the price of oil in western markets 3-4 times, soviets went all in on export to cash in as much as possible. As a result, their WP allies received much less oil during the period. So even though they had a major oil producer "ally" they had to suffer shortages with everyone else.
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Do you not know what "seizing the means of produktion" means,
Also fascist were also big on autarky lol, do you even know what the conversion was about?
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Nazis were autarkic (?) out of necessity, Royal Navy guaranteed that. And before that Germany was already in massive foreign currency reserve crisis when they inherited the country, funneling all available imports to ones needed most by military. So they for example cracked down hard on steel industrialists when they were blocking development of local (shitty) iron ore mining (they wanted to keep importing quality
ore). This was all exasperated by their refusal to devaluate DM, out of political reasons avoiding the memory of inflation.
But they never separated their conquered countries from the economy of the Reich, especially since half of them they outright annexed anyway.
Meanwhile Stalin does annex eastern Poland, but after that makes Poland and Czechoslovakia and Romania and DDR each their own separate autarkik (?) economies, with very little trade in between.
don't know what you're talking about here
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Even before the war both Germany and Italy had attempted to implement autarkic economies as part of their corporatism. The entire reason for Japan's conquest was to secure resources and reduce reliance on western powers.
The fact that it seems like you didn't read any of the former replies in the thread? Also, you seem to think autarkic and seizure of assets are mutually exclusive
Anyway, I point it out because you seem to misunderstand why I said it.
Anime neighbor says atleast nazi had a functioning economy, coping commie says it heckin only worked because they kept fueling it with jew gold, I point out that the basis of Marxism by it's own definition is an economy built upon seizing the work of others, and then you come in rambling about something completely irrelevant.
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