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What's the legal difference between giving them a lot of alcohol with pressure to drink it, and drugging their drink? I imagine negligible in the case of the minors, but just wondering how far the difference in coercion had a legal impact rather than just opening up the whole 'they wasted to be there and they got themselves drunk, the dumb sluts,' argument.

The response to reddit roofie accusations of, 'Why would I waste the expensive stuff?' doesn't apply here, and I think the chances are very high this all happened, or at least close enough. I was just wondering.

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It's safe to assume anyone over a certain net worth is a p*dophile.


Formerly Chuck's.

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I think Oprah might just be gay.

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